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NEW QUESTION # 17
Which action is unique to the security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR) platforms?
- A. Prioritizing alerts
- B. Enhancing data collection
- C. Correlating incident data
- D. Using predefined workflows
Answer: D
Explanation:
SOAR platforms are unique in their ability to automate incident response through the use of predefined workflows. These workflows allow repetitive security tasks to be executed automatically, improving response speed and efficiency.
NEW QUESTION # 18
Which technology grants enhanced visibility and threat prevention locally on a device?
- A. IDS
- B. EDR
- C. SIEM
- D. DLP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) technologies provide comprehensive visibility and real-time threat prevention directly on endpoint devices. EDR continuously monitors process activities, file executions, and system calls to detect malware, suspicious behaviors, and zero-day threats at the source. Palo Alto Networks' Cortex XDR platform exemplifies this by correlating endpoint telemetry with network and cloud data to provide a holistic defense against attacks. Operating locally on endpoints allows EDR to prevent lateral movement and respond to threats quickly, filling security gaps that network-centric tools alone cannot address. This endpoint-level insight is critical to identifying sophisticated threats that initiate or manifest on user devices.
NEW QUESTION # 19
Which two statements apply to the SSL/TLS protocol? (Choose two.)
- A. It provides administrator privileges to manage and control the access of network resources.
- B. It is a method used to encrypt data and authenticate web-based communication.
- C. It ensures the data that is transferred between a client and a server remains private.
- D. It contains password characters that users enter to access encrypted data.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
SSL/TLS encrypts and authenticates web-based communication to ensure secure data transmission over networks. It ensures privacy by encrypting the data exchanged between a client and a server, protecting it from interception or tampering. It doesn't handle user input like passwords directly.
NEW QUESTION # 20
What is the function of an endpoint detection and response (EDR) tool?
- A. To integrate data from different products in order to provide a holistic view of security posture
- B. To provide organizations with expertise for monitoring network devices
- C. To monitor activities and behaviors for investigation of security incidents on user devices
- D. To ingest alert data from network devices
Answer: C
Explanation:
Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) tools monitor, record, and analyze endpoint activity to detect suspicious behavior, investigate incidents, and respond to threats on user devices such as laptops and desktops.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which statement describes a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS)?
- A. It analyzes network traffic to detect unusual traffic flows and new malware.
- B. It is placed as a sensor to monitor all network traffic and scan for threats.
- C. It scans a Wi-Fi network for unauthorized access and removes unauthorized devices.
- D. It is installed on an endpoint and inspects the device.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Host-Based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) is installed directly on an endpoint device (such as a server or workstation) and monitors local system activity, including processes, file access, and system calls, to detect and prevent malicious behavior.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which tool's analysis data gives security operations teams insight into their environment's risks from exposed services?
- A. IAM
- B. SIM
- C. Xpanse
- D. IIDP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Xpanse is a tool from Palo Alto Networks that provides attack surface management by analyzing exposed services and internet-facing assets, giving security operations teams visibility into environmental risks and helping prioritize remediation of vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which activity is a technique in the MITRE ATT&CK framework?
- A. Resource development
- B. Account discovery
- C. Credential access
- D. Lateral movement
Answer: B
Explanation:
Account discovery is a technique in the MITRE ATT&CK framework under the Discovery tactic. It involves adversaries attempting to identify user accounts on a system or network.
Credential access, lateral movement, and resource development are tactics - high-level objectives an attacker is trying to achieve.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which product functions as part of a SASE solution?
- A. Cortex
- B. Kubernetes
- C. Prisma SD-WAN
- D. Prisma Cloud
Answer: C
Explanation:
Prisma SD-WAN is a key component of a SASE (Secure Access Service Edge) solution. It provides intelligent routing, traffic optimization, and secure connectivity between users and applications, supporting the networking part of SASE alongside security services like those in Prisma Access.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which technology helps Security Operations Center (SOC) teams identify heap spray attacks on company-owned laptops?
- A. CSPM
- B. ASM
- C. EDR
- D. CVVP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Heap spray attacks exploit memory management vulnerabilities by injecting malicious code into a program's heap to manipulate execution flow. Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) platforms monitor memory and process behavior on endpoints, enabling the detection of such memory-based exploits through anomaly and behavior analysis. Palo Alto Networks' Cortex XDR equips SOC teams with the tools to detect, analyze, and respond to heap spray and other in-memory attacks on company laptops in real time. EDR's endpoint-centric visibility is crucial since heap spray attacks operate below network layers and often bypass traditional perimeter defenses.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which type of attack involves sending data packets disguised as queries to a remote server, which then sends the data back to the attacker?
- A. DNS tunneling
- B. Port evasion
- C. DDoS
- D. Command-and-control (C2)
Answer: A
Explanation:
DNS tunneling is an attack technique where data packets are disguised as DNS queries and sent to a remote server. That server, often under the attacker's control, responds with additional data or instructions, effectively creating a covert command-and-control (C2) channel over DNS.
NEW QUESTION # 27
What is required for an effective Attack Surface Management (ASM) process?
- A. Static inventory of assets
- B. Isolation of assets by default
- C. Real-time data rich inventory
- D. Periodic manual monitoring
Answer: C
Explanation:
An effective Attack Surface Management (ASM) process requires a real-time, data-rich inventory of all internet-facing assets. This enables continuous visibility, timely detection of vulnerabilities, and identification of exposures that attackers could exploit.
NEW QUESTION # 28
A high-profile company executive receives an urgent email containing a malicious link. The sender appears to be from the IT department of the company, and the email requests an update of the executive's login credentials for a system update.
Which type of phishing attack does this represent?
- A. Whaling
- B. Angler phishing
- C. Vishing
- D. Pharming
Answer: A
Explanation:
Whaling is a targeted phishing attack aimed at high-profile individuals, such as executives. The attacker impersonates a trusted entity (e.g., IT department) to trick the executive into revealing sensitive credentials. This is a form of spear phishing specifically focused on "big fish" targets.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which feature of cloud-native security platforms (CNSPs) focuses on protecting virtual machine (VM), container, and serverless deployments against application-level attacks during runtime?
- A. Asset inventory
- B. Data security
- C. Configuration assessment
- D. Workload security
Answer: D
Explanation:
Workload security in a Cloud-Native Security Platform (CNSP) focuses on protecting VMs, containers, and serverless deployments against application-level attacks during runtime. It ensures that workloads remain secure by monitoring behavior, enforcing policies, and detecting threats in real time.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which component of the AAA framework verifies user identities so they may access the network?
- A. Authentication
- B. Accounting
- C. Allowance
- D. Authorization
Answer: A
Explanation:
Authentication is the component of the AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) framework that verifies user identities (e.g., via passwords, certificates, or biometrics) before granting access to network resources.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which component of the AAA framework regulates user access and permissions to resources?
- A. Authorization
- B. Accounting
- C. Allowance
- D. Authentication
Answer: A
Explanation:
Authorization is the component of the AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) framework that regulates user access and permissions to resources after identity has been verified. It determines what actions or resources a user is allowed to access.
NEW QUESTION # 32
When does a TLS handshake occur?
- A. Before establishing a TCP connection
- B. Only during DNS over HTTPS queries
- C. Independently of HTTPS communications
- D. After a TCP handshake has been established
Answer: D
Explanation:
A TLS handshake occurs after the TCP handshake is complete. The TLS handshake is responsible for establishing a secure, encrypted session between client and server, including the negotiation of encryption algorithms and exchange of keys.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which component of cloud security is used to identify misconfigurations during the development process?
- A. Network security
- B. Code security
- C. SaaS security
- D. Container security
Answer: B
Explanation:
Code security focuses on identifying vulnerabilities and misconfigurations early in the development process. It uses tools like static code analysis and infrastructure-as-code (IaC) scanning to ensure secure coding and configuration before deployment.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which characteristic of advanced malware makes it difficult to detect?
- A. Morphing code
- B. Low traffic volumes
- C. Data decompression
- D. Registered certificates
Answer: A
Explanation:
Morphing code, also known as polymorphism, allows advanced malware to change its code structure with each iteration or infection. This makes it extremely difficult for traditional signature-based detection tools to recognize and block the malware consistently.
NEW QUESTION # 35
What are two common lifecycle stages for an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is infiltrating a network? (Choose two.)
- A. Lateral movement
- B. Privilege escalation
- C. Deletion of critical data
- D. Communication with covert channels
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Lateral movement is a key stage where the attacker moves across the network to find valuable targets.
Privilege escalation involves gaining higher access rights to expand control within the compromised environment.
Communication with covert channels is a tactic used during persistence or exfiltration, while deletion of critical data is not a standard APT lifecycle stage - it's more characteristic of destructive attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which endpoint protection security option can prevent malware from executing software?
- A. URL filtering
- B. Application allow list
- C. Dynamic access control
- D. DNS Security
Answer: B
Explanation:
An application allow list prevents malware from executing by only permitting approved applications to run on an endpoint. Any unauthorized or unknown software, including malicious programs, is automatically blocked from executing.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which security function enables a firewall to validate the operating system version of a device before granting it network access?
- A. Host intrusion prevention system (HIPS)
- B. Sandboxing
- C. Stateless packet inspection
- D. Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Host Intrusion Prevention Systems (HIPS) operate on endpoints to enforce security policies by monitoring system calls, file integrity, and configuration settings. HIPS can validate device compliance, including operating system versions and patch levels, before permitting network access. This capability prevents vulnerable or outdated devices from becoming attack vectors. Palo Alto Networks integrates HIPS functionalities in its endpoint security solutions, providing granular control to enforce organizational security standards and reduce risk from non-compliant endpoints. Unlike network-based inspection, HIPS works locally on hosts to stop threats at their origin.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which next-generation firewall (NGFW) deployment option provides full application visibility into Kubernetes environments?
- A. Physical
- B. SASE
- C. Container
- D. Virtual
Answer: C
Explanation:
A container-based NGFW is specifically designed to integrate with Kubernetes environments, providing full application visibility and control within containerized workloads. It operates at the pod level, making it ideal for securing dynamic microservices architectures.
NEW QUESTION # 39
What is an advantage of virtual firewalls over physical firewalls for internal segmentation when placed in a data center?
- A. They have failover capability.
- B. They are dynamically scalable.
- C. They are able to prevent evasive threats.
- D. They possess unlimited throughput capability.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Virtual firewalls offer the advantage of dynamic scalability, making them ideal for internal segmentation in data centers. They can be quickly deployed, resized, and adjusted to meet the needs of changing workloads and environments, unlike physical firewalls which require fixed hardware resources.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which type of attack obscures its presence while attempting to spread to multiple hosts in a network?
- A. Advanced malware
- B. Denial of service
- C. Smishing
- D. Reconnaissance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Advanced malware is designed to evade detection and persist within a system, often using stealthy techniques to spread laterally across multiple hosts in a network without triggering alerts, making it especially dangerous and difficult to remove.
NEW QUESTION # 41
What is a function of SSL/TLS decryption?
- A. It protects users from social engineering.
- B. It applies to unknown threat detection only.
- C. It reveals malware within web-based traffic.
- D. It identifies loT devices on the internet.
Answer: C
Explanation:
SSL/TLS decryption allows security tools to inspect encrypted traffic, enabling them to detect hidden malware, command-and-control communication, or data exfiltration that would otherwise bypass inspection if left encrypted.
NEW QUESTION # 42
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