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AACN PCCN certification exam covers a wide range of topics that are relevant to the care of acutely ill patients. These topics include cardiovascular, pulmonary, gastrointestinal, renal, endocrine, and neurological systems, as well as hematological and immune disorders, multisystem problems, and pharmacology. PCCN exam also assesses the nurse’s ability to use critical thinking skills and make sound clinical judgments in a variety of situations. The AACN PCCN certification exam is a rigorous and challenging exam, and passing it demonstrates a nurse’s commitment to excellence in the care of acutely ill patients.
The PCCN exam is designed to assess the knowledge and skills of nurses who work in progressive care units. It covers a wide range of topics, including cardiovascular, pulmonary, renal, gastrointestinal, and endocrine systems, as well as neurology, hematology, and immunology. PCCN exam also tests nurses' knowledge of professional caring and ethical practice, as well as their ability to use critical thinking and clinical judgment in their work.
AACN PCCN (Progressive Care Certified Nursing) Exam is a certification exam that is designed for nurses who are interested in working in progressive care units. PCCN exam focuses on testing the knowledge and skills of nurses who work with acutely ill adult patients. Nurses who pass the AACN PCCN Exam are recognized as experts in their field and are eligible for higher salaries and more job opportunities.
NEW QUESTION # 258
Which among the following is included in the Learning Styles?
- A. Both A and B
- B. Only B
- C. Visual learners
- D. Kinesthetic learners
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: Visual and kinesthetic learners are included in Learning Styles. People should aware of their preferred learning style. Teaching materials relates to all 3 learning preferences, visual, auditory, and kinesthetic.
NEW QUESTION # 259
In this type of aortic dissection, the original tear begins in the ascending aorta and the dissection extends to the descending aorta:
- A. Type III
- B. Type II
- C. Type IV
- D. Type I
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Type I
In type I, the original intimal tear begins in the ascending aorta and the dissection extends to the descending aorta. In type II, the tear begins and is contained in the ascending aorta. In type III, the intimal tear begins and is contained in the descending aorta. There is no type IV aortic aneurysm dissection.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 481.
NEW QUESTION # 260
All of the following statements related to hemodialysis are true except:
- A. 14- or 16-gauge needles are used in coupling the dialysis catheter and the dialysis circuitry
- B. Coupling requires strict adherence to sterile technique
- C. Both arterial and venous pressures are monitored in the dialysis circuitry
- D. When a synthetic graft is used, only one needle is required to "couple" the dialysis catheter and the dialysis circuitry, using clean technique
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: When a synthetic graft is used, only one needle is required to "couple" the dialysis catheter and the dialysis circuitry, using clean technique To initiate dialysis through a permanent access device, two 14- or 16-gauge needles are inserted into the dilated vein of the fistula or the graft portion of the synthetic graft. One needle is considered arterial, used for blood outflow, and the other is considered venous, used for blood return. Coupling is performed using sterile technique.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 383.
NEW QUESTION # 261
Appropriate reasons for the use of sedation in the progressive care unit include all of the following except:
- A. Ventilator tolerance, patient safety and agitation, amnesia
- B. Amnesia, patient safety and agitation, sleep deprivation
- C. Anxiety and fear, sleep deprivation, delirium
- D. Pain, amnesia, patient safety and agitation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Pain, amnesia, patient safety and agitation
After making sure the presence of pain is either ruled out or addressed with the appropriate use of analgesics, sedatives may be selected based on patient-specific factors.
The progressive care environment can be uncomfortable and anxiety provoking for patients. In some cases, the use of sedatives may be necessary to ensure tolerance of medical modalities, clinical stability and to protect patients from inadvertent self-harm.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 155-156.
NEW QUESTION # 262
On the electrocardiogram, atrial muscle depolarization is represented by which of the following?
- A. PR interval
- B. U wave
- C. T wave
- D. P wave
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: P wave
On electrocardiogram, the P wave represents atrial muscle depolarization. It is usually 2.5 mm or less in height and 0.11 second or less in duration. P waves can be upright, inverted, or biphasic depending on how the electrical impulse conducts through the atria and on which lead it is being recorded.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 39.
NEW QUESTION # 263
The dosing regimen of this recombinant plasminogen activator requires double bolus doses. What is the drug?
- A. Alteplase
- B. Bivalirudin
- C. Argatroban
- D. Reteplase
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Reteplase
Reteplase is a recombinant plasminogen activator for use as a thrombolytic agent in acute MI and pulmonary embolism. It requires two 10-U IV bolus doses, infused over 2 minutes via a dedicated line.
The second dose is administered 30 minutes after the initiation of the first injection.
Alteplase does not require double bolus doses. Argatroban and bivalirudin are not recombinant plasminogen activators. Argatroban is a selective thrombin inhibitor, and bivalirudin is an anticoagulant with direct thrombin inhibitor properties.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 185-187.
NEW QUESTION # 264
Which of the following terms indicates prolonged or recurring seizures without a return to baseline mental status?
- A. Myoclonic seizure
- B. Tonic-clonic seizure
- C. Status epilepticus
- D. Drop attacks
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: Status epilepticus
The classic definition of status epilepticus is a seizure or series of seizures lasting longer than 30 minutes, but treatment is most often instituted much sooner. Recent guidelines suggest a definition of seizure activity which lasts longer than five minutes.
Myoclonic seizures are described as a sudden, brief muscle jerking of one or more muscle groups and are commonly associated with metabolic, degenerative, and hypoxic causes. Atonic seizures are characterized by the sudden loss of muscle tone and are also called "drop attacks." In tonic-clonic seizures, muscle activity varies between jerking and sustained muscle contractions.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 316-317.
NEW QUESTION # 265
In a patient with diabetic acidosis, the nurse expects laboratory levels to reveal:
- A. Low serum glucose, increased acidity, high carbon dioxide
- B. Elevated serum glucose, normal acidity, high carbon dioxide
- C. Low serum glucose, decreased acidity, low carbon dioxide
- D. Elevated serum glucose, increased acidity, low carbon dioxide
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Elevated serum glucose, increased acidity, low carbon dioxide In a patient with diabetic acidosis, the nurse expects laboratory levels to reveal elevated serum glucose, increased acidity, and low carbon dioxide. Without insulin, glucose is unable to enter the cells or be converted to glycogen. It remains in the blood and raises the serum glucose level. The breakdown of fats for energy creates an accumulation of ketones resulting in acidosis. The lowered pH level will stimulate the lungs to blow off carbon dioxide (Kussmaul respirations).
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 390.
NEW QUESTION # 266
The nurse suspects an acute gastrointestinal bleed in which of the following patients:
- A. A 20-year-old female with nausea, epigastric pain, and bradycardia
- B. An elderly, arthritic woman with a pulse rate of 132 and hematemesis
- C. A 90-year-old confused male with a blood pressure of 160/90 and a pulse rate of 90
- D. A 30-year-old female smoker with a pulse rate of 58 and abdominal distension
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: An elderly, arthritic woman with a pulse rate of 132 and hematemesis An elderly woman with tachycardia and bright red blood or coffee ground emesis is the most likely of these patients to have a gastrointestinal bleed. Since she is also arthritic, she may also be taking medications that can cause gastric bleeding.
A 30-year-old female smoker, with a pulse rate of 58 and abdominal distension: While smokers are at increased risk for gastrointestinal bleeding, and abdominal distension may also indicate the condition, this patient's pulse is not elevated.
A 90-year-old confused male with a blood pressure of 160/90 and a pulse rate of 90: While this patient has a somewhat increased pulse rate and is confused, his blood pressure is elevated, so further assessment is needed.
A 20-year-old female with nausea, epigastric pain, and bradycardia: Tachycardia, not bradycardia, is a sign of an acute gastrointestinal bleed.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 343.
NEW QUESTION # 267
Secondary causes of acute respiratory distress syndrome include:
- A. Systemic sepsis, hypovolemic shock associated with chest trauma, acute pancreatitis
- B. Systemic sepsis, near drowning, smoke inhalation
- C. Fat emboli, acute pancreatitis, pulmonary contusion
- D. Aspiration of stomach contents, pulmonary contusion, smoke inhalation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: Systemic sepsis, hypovolemic shock associated with chest trauma, acute pancreatitis Secondary causes of acute respiratory distress syndrome are mediated by cellular or humoral injury to the capillary endothelium and include:
* Systemic sepsis
* Hypovolemic shock associated with chest trauma or sepsis
* Acute pancreatitis
* Fat emboli
* Trauma
* Disseminated intravascular coagulation
* Massive blood transfusions
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 258.
NEW QUESTION # 268
Which of the following causes are of stress related erosive syndrome?
- A. Severe burns
- B. All of the above
- C. Sepsis
- D. Multi-organ failure
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: Stress related erosive syndrome occurs in the patients who are severely ill due to any trauma. All of the above are the predisposing factors to stress related erosive syndrome. Stress induces changes in the gastrointestinal mucosa.
NEW QUESTION # 269
What is the last step followed in Evidence Based Guidelines?
- A. Policy considerations
- B. Focus on the topic
- C. Review
- D. Expert judgment
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: "Review" is the last step followed in Evidence Based Guidelines. Different steps to evidence based practice guidelines are, Focus on the topic, Evidence review, Expert judgment, Policy considerations, Policy and review.
NEW QUESTION # 270
Which of the following agents is correctly administered for variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding to inhibit splanchnic blood flow in a 250 mcg bolus, then continually per IV infusion at 250 mcg per hour?
- A. Octreotide
- B. Propranolol
- C. Somatostatin
- D. Nadolol
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: Somatostatin
Somatostatin reduces portal pressure by constricting splanchnic blood flow. It is administered as a bolus of 250 mcg followed by a continuous IV infusion at 250 mcg/hour.
Octreotide also inhibits splanchnic blood flow and decreases portal and variceal pressures. It is given as a 50 mcg bolus followed by an IV infusion at 25 to 50 mcg/hour. Nadolol and propranolol are nonselective beta-adrenergic blockers. These drugs are administered IV or orally to decrease resting heart rate by 20% or to 55 to 60 beats per minute. Their action is to decrease cardiac output and thereby reduce splanchnic blood flow.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 347.
NEW QUESTION # 271
Autonomic dysreflexia results most often due to:
- A. Infection
- B. A full rectum
- C. An overdistended bladder
- D. Pain
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: An overdistended bladder
Autonomic dysreflexia results from a variety of stimuli; the most common of these is an overdistended bladder.
Other stimuli which can result in autonomic dysreflexia include:
* Infection
* A full rectum
* Skin stimulation
* Pain
* Pressure injuries
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 510.
NEW QUESTION # 272
Which of the following is the most widely-used opioid and is the gold standard against which other opioids are compared?
- A. Dilaudid
- B. Morphine sulfate
- C. Hydromorphone
- D. Fentanyl
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: Morphine sulfate
Morphine is the most widely-used opioid; it is the gold standard against which other opioids are compared. Other opioids commonly used in the care of the acutely ill include hydromorphone (Dilaudid) and fentanyl (Sublimaze).
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 147.
NEW QUESTION # 273
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